TEST – 2

1. The Indian Constitution is described as:
   A. Federal with a unitary bias
   B. Unitary
   C. Purely federal
   D. Confederation
2. The concept of a written constitution was borrowed from:
   A. UK
   B. USA
   C. Canada
   D. France
3. The basic structure doctrine limits:
   A. Fundamental Rights
   B. Power of Parliament to amend the Constitution
   C. Judicial power
   D. President’s authority
4. Judicial Review under Article 32 is a part of:
   A. Parliament’s authority
   B. Executive function
   C. Basic structure
   D. Federal principle
5. Which of the following Articles cannot be amended under Article 368?
   A. Article 14
   B. Article 21
   C. Basic structure-related Articles
   D. All of the above
6. The doctrine of separation of powers is:
   A. Strictly followed in India
   B. Not recognized in India
   C. Partially applicable
   D. Ignored
7. Which Article deals with collective responsibility of the Council of Ministers?
   A. Article 74
   B. Article 75(3)
   C. Article 77
   D. Article 79
8. The President can dissolve Lok Sabha under:
   A. Article 83
   B. Article 85
   C. Article 100
   D. Article 110
9. “Equal pay for equal work” is included under:
   A. Fundamental Rights
   B. Directive Principles
   C. Fundamental Duties
   D. Constitutional Convention
10. The 44th Amendment Act was passed in:
    A. 1975
    B. 1976
    C. 1978
    D. 1980
11. Which case laid down the concept of judicial activism?
    A. Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala
    B. Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India
    C. A.K. Gopalan v. State of Madras
    D. Indira Gandhi v. Raj Narain
12. The Constitution of India came into force on:
    A. 15th August 1947
    B. 26th January 1950
    C. 30th January 1948
    D. 1st January 1949
13. The emergency provisions of the Constitution were influenced by:
    A. Government of India Act, 1935
    B. USA Constitution
    C. Canadian Constitution
    D. French Constitution
14. The Right to Property was removed as a Fundamental Right by which amendment?
    A. 40th
    B. 42nd
    C. 44th
    D. 45th
15. Who has the power to remove the Governor of a state?
    A. Chief Minister
    B. President
    C. Parliament
    D. Supreme Court
16. Which Article provides that the executive power of a state shall be vested in the Governor?
    A. Article 153
    B. Article 154
    C. Article 155
    D. Article 156
17. The Advocate-General for a State is appointed by:
    A. President
    B. Governor
    C. Chief Justice
    D. Chief Minister
18. The President’s ordinance-making power is a:
    A. Legislative power
    B. Executive power
    C. Emergency power
    D. Judicial power
19. The maximum period for which an ordinance can remain in force is:
    A. 6 months
    B. 6 months and 6 weeks
    C. 3 months
    D. 1 year
20. In which case did the Supreme Court uphold the primacy of Fundamental Rights over Directive Principles?
    A. Minerva Mills v. Union of India
    B. Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala
    C. Golaknath v. State of Punjab
    D. S.R. Bommai v. Union of India
21. Which body adjudicates disputes regarding the election of the President?
    A. Parliament
    B. Election Commission
    C. Supreme Court
    D. High Court
22. Which Article deals with the composition of Parliament?
    A. Article 74
    B. Article 79
    C. Article 81
    D. Article 85
23. The Attorney General of India holds office:
    A. For 5 years
    B. During the pleasure of the President
    C. For 6 years
    D. As long as Lok Sabha exists
24. Which Article provides for the Supreme Court’s original jurisdiction?
    A. Article 131
    B. Article 132
    C. Article 133
    D. Article 134
25. Lok Sabha is dissolved by:
    A. Speaker
    B. President
    C. Prime Minister
    D. Chief Justice
26. Which Article provides the power to the President to grant pardons?
    A. Article 72
    B. Article 73
    C. Article 74
    D. Article 75
27. The doctrine of pleasure in India applies to:
    A. President
    B. Governor
    C. Civil servants
    D. Ministers
28. The Union Public Service Commission is constituted under:
    A. Article 315
    B. Article 320
    C. Article 323
    D. Article 324
29. Administrative law developed primarily due to:
    A. Growth of state functions
    B. Judicial activism
    C. Fundamental Rights
    D. Constitutional amendment
30. Which is not a principle of natural justice?
    A. Nemo judex in causa sua
    B. Audi alteram partem
    C. Res judicata
    D. Speaking order
31. The term “administrative discretion” means:
    A. Judicial decision-making
    B. Power of executive authorities to decide matters
    C. Legislative drafting
    D. None of these
32. The concept of “Rule of Law” was propounded by:
    A. A.V. Dicey
    B. Kelsen
    C. Hobbes
    D. Austin
33. In India, judicial review of administrative actions is based on:
    A. Doctrine of ultra vires
    B. Separation of powers
    C. Natural justice
    D. All of the above
34. Which of the following is an administrative authority?
    A. Tribunal
    B. Supreme Court
    C. High Court
    D. Parliament
35. Administrative tribunals are governed by which Act?
    A. Administrative Tribunals Act, 1985
    B. Tribunals Act, 1980
    C. Administrative Law Act, 1984
    D. None of the above
36. Public Interest Litigation (PIL) aims at:
    A. Protecting private interests
    B. Protecting public interest
    C. Administrative convenience
    D. Political rights only
37. The Central Administrative Tribunal (CAT) deals with disputes of:
    A. Public sector employees
    B. Government servants
    C. Private employees
    D. Armed forces
38. Who appoints the Chief Election Commissioner?
    A. Prime Minister
    B. President
    C. Chief Justice
    D. Parliament
39. The principle of legitimate expectation relates to:
    A. Fair administrative action
    B. Judicial review
    C. Legislative action
    D. Constitutional amendment
40. “Audi alteram partem” means:
    A. Hear the other side
    B. No one shall be judge in his own cause
    C. Speak the truth
    D. None
41. The doctrine of proportionality is applied in:
    A. Constitutional review
    B. Administrative review
    C. Judicial appointments
    D. Executive powers
42. Which Article empowers High Courts to issue writs?
    A. Article 226
    B. Article 227
    C. Article 228
    D. Article 229
43. Which case first recognized PIL in India?
    A. S.P. Gupta v. Union of India
    B. Hussainara Khatoon v. State of Bihar
    C. Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India
    D. Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala
44. The President can be impeached for:
    A. Violation of the Constitution
    B. Misuse of powers
    C. Corruption
    D. Inefficiency
45. Which Article gives the Supreme Court advisory jurisdiction?
    A. Article 143
    B. Article 136
    C. Article 132
    D. Article 131
46. Who acts as the ex-officio Chairman of Rajya Sabha?
    A. Speaker
    B. Vice President
    C. Prime Minister
    D. President
47. Right to Information is guaranteed under:
    A. Article 19(1)(a)
    B. Article 21
    C. Article 32
    D. Article 51A
48. Which case is related to the expansion of Article 21?
    A. Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India
    B. Golaknath v. State of Punjab
    C. S.R. Bommai v. Union of India
    D. Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala
49. The power of judicial review in India was upheld in:
    A. Minerva Mills v. Union of India
    B. Shankari Prasad v. Union of India
    C. A.K. Gopalan v. State of Madras
    D. Indira Gandhi v. Raj Narain
50. Who was the first Chief Justice of India?
    A. M. Patanjali Sastri
    B. H.J. Kania
    C. Mehr Chand Mahajan
    D. B.K. Mukherjee

✅ Test–2 Answer Key

1-A, 2-B, 3-B, 4-C, 5-D, 6-C, 7-B, 8-B, 9-B, 10-C, 11-B, 12-B, 13-A, 14-C, 15-B, 16-B, 17-B, 18-A, 19-B, 20-C, 21-C, 22-B, 23-B, 24-A, 25-B, 26-A, 27-C, 28-A, 29-A, 30-C, 31-B, 32-A, 33-D, 34-A, 35-A, 36-B, 37-B, 38-B, 39-A, 40-A, 41-B, 42-A, 43-B, 44-A, 45-A, 46-B, 47-A, 48-A, 49-B, 50-B.