Mon. Dec 1st, 2025
Course Content
UNIT – I: JURISPRUDENCE
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UNIT – II: CONSTITUTIONAL AND ADMINISTRATIVE LAW
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UNIT – III: PUBLIC INTERNATIONAL LAW AND IHL
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UNIT – IV: LAW OF CRIMES
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UNIT – V: LAW OF TORTS AND CONSUMER PROTECTION
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UNIT – VI: COMMERCIAL LAW
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UGC NET (LAW) Study Material
  1. The maxim “Ignorantia facti excusat, ignorantia juris non excusat” means:
  • A) Ignorance of fact excuses, ignorance of law does not excuse
  • B) Ignorance of law excuses
  • C) Both fact and law ignorance excuse
  • D) Neither excuses
  1. Strict liability means:
  • A) Liability without mens rea
  • B) Liability with mens rea
  • C) No liability
  • D) Conditional liability
  1. The landmark case for strict liability is:
  • A) M.C. Mehta v. Union of India
  • B) Rylands v. Fletcher
  • C) Donoghue v. Stevenson
  • D) Salomon v. Salomon
  1. Joint liability arises when:
  • A) One person commits crime
  • B) Several persons act together
  • C) Crime is committed accidentally
  • D) There is no criminal intent
  1. Corporate criminal liability is an example of:
  • A) Individual liability
  • B) Vicarious liability
  • C) Direct liability
  • D) No liability
  1. The doctrine of “common intention” is found in:
  • A) Section 34 IPC
  • B) Section 35 IPC
  • C) Section 107 IPC
  • D) Section 120A IPC
  1. Mere preparation to commit an offense is:
  • A) Punishable
  • B) Not punishable generally
  • C) Always punishable
  • D) Punishable only for serious crimes
  1. For abetment, the abetted offense:
  • A) Must be committed
  • B) Need not be committed
  • C) Should result in death
  • D) Should be proved beyond doubt
  1. Punishment for abetment is generally:
  • A) Less than main offense
  • B) Same as main offense
  • C) More than main offense
  • D) No punishment
  1. The essential element of conspiracy is:
  • A) Agreement between parties
  • B) Completion of crime
  • C) Actual commission
  • D) Visible preparation
  1. Conspiracy is complete:
  • A) When crime is committed
  • B) When agreement is made
  • C) When preparation begins
  • D) When attempt is made
  1. The Rubicon test is associated with:
  • A) Preparation
  • B) Attempt
  • C) Abetment
  • D) Conspiracy
  1. Impossibility is:
  • A) Always a defense to attempt
  • B) Not a defense to attempt
  • C) Sometimes a defense
  • D) Defense only for serious crimes
  1. Which is NOT a general exception?
  • A) Judicial acts
  • B) Necessity
  • C) Provocation as complete defense
  • D) Accident
  1. A child below 7 years:
  • A) Can be held criminally liable
  • B) Cannot be held criminally liable
  • C) Can be held liable for murder only
  • D) Needs court approval for liability
  1. Doli incapax refers to:
  • A) Incapacity to form criminal intent
  • B) Physical incapacity
  • C) Mental illness
  • D) Old age
  1. Consent as a defense is valid when:
  • A) Given under fear
  • B) Given freely by competent person
  • C) Given by minor
  • D) Given for murder
  1. Consent is NOT a defense for:
  • A) Simple hurt
  • B) Death
  • C) Medical treatment
  • D) Sports injuries
  1. Intoxication as a defense is covered under:
  • A) Section 85 and 86
  • B) Section 84
  • C) Section 76
  • D) Section 79
  1. Voluntary intoxication:
  • A) Is a complete defense
  • B) Is generally not a defense
  • C) Is always a defense
  • D) Reduces punishment by half
  1. Involuntary intoxication:
  • A) Is not a defense
  • B) May be a defense
  • C) Increases liability
  • D) Has no legal significance
  1. Mistake of fact is a defense under:
  • A) Section 76
  • B) Section 79
  • C) Section 80
  • D) Section 81
  1. Mistake of law is:
  • A) A valid defense
  • B) Not a valid defense
  • C) Valid only for foreigners
  • D) Valid with court permission
  1. The right of private defense begins when:
  • A) Danger is imminent
  • B) After harm is caused
  • C) When police arrive
  • D) After filing FIR
  1. Private defense does NOT extend to:
  • A) Public servants acting in good faith
  • B) Unknown trespassers
  • C) Armed robbers
  • D) Violent attackers
  1. Exception 1 to Section 300 deals with:
  • A) Sudden provocation
  • B) Private defense
  • C) Consent
  • D) Mistake
  1. The “reasonable man” test is used in:
  • A) Provocation defense
  • B) Insanity defense
  • C) Intoxication defense
  • D) Mistake defense
  1. Assault is defined under:
  • A) Section 351
  • B) Section 352
  • C) Section 319
  • D) Section 321
  1. Section 375 IPC deals with:
  • A) Murder
  • B) Rape
  • C) Kidnapping
  • D) Theft
  1. How many circumstances convert culpable homicide into murder under Section 300?
  • A) Two
  • B) Three
  • C) Four
  • D) Five
  1. Death caused in a sudden fight falls under:
  • A) Murder
  • B) Exception 4 to Section 300
  • C) Section 304A
  • D) Section 302
  1. Hurt is defined under:
  • A) Section 319
  • B) Section 320
  • C) Section 323
  • D) Section 325
  1. Section 354 IPC deals with:
  • A) Murder
  • B) Rape
  • C) Assault or criminal force with intent to outrage modesty
  • D) Kidnapping
  1. Waging war against Asian countries allied with India is covered under:
  • A) Section 121
  • B) Section 121A
  • C) Section 122
  • D) Section 124A
  1. Promoting enmity between groups is punishable under:
  • A) Section 153A
  • B) Section 153B
  • C) Section 124A
  • D) Section 295A
  1. Terrorist acts are primarily covered under:
  • A) IPC only
  • B) UAPA
  • C) CrPC
  • D) Constitution
  1. Dishonest misappropriation is defined under:
  • A) Section 403
  • B) Section 405
  • C) Section 415
  • D) Section 420
  1. Criminal breach of trust is defined under:
  • A) Section 403
  • B) Section 405
  • C) Section 415
  • D) Section 420
  1. Cheating is defined under:
  • A) Section 415
  • B) Section 420
  • C) Section 463
  • D) Section 465
  1. Forgery is defined under:
  • A) Section 463
  • B) Section 464
  • C) Section 465
  • D) Section 468
  1. Kidnapping from lawful guardianship is covered under:
  • A) Section 359
  • B) Section 361
  • C) Section 363
  • D) Section 365
  1. Abduction is defined under:
  • A) Section 362
  • B) Section 363
  • C) Section 364
  • D) Section 365
  1. Cruelty by husband is punishable under:
  • A) Section 498A
  • B) Section 304B
  • C) Section 306
  • D) Section 354
  1. Sexual harassment at workplace is governed by:
  • A) IPC only
  • B) Sexual Harassment Act, 2013
  • C) POCSO Act
  • D) Domestic Violence Act
  1. Child pornography is punishable under:
  • A) IPC
  • B) POCSO Act
  • C) IT Act
  • D) All of the above
  1. Commercial quantity under NDPS Act means:
  • A) Small amount
  • B) Large amount for trafficking
  • C) Personal use amount
  • D) Negligible amount
  1. Rioting is defined under:
  • A) Section 146
  • B) Section 147
  • C) Section 148
  • D) Section 149
  1. Being a member of unlawful assembly is punishable under:
  • A) Section 141
  • B) Section 143
  • C) Section 147
  • D) Section 149
  1. The theory that punishment should reform the offender is called:
  • A) Retributive theory
  • B) Deterrent theory
  • C) Reformative theory
  • D) Preventive theory
  1. Compensation to victims is primarily provided under:
  • A) IPC
  • B) CrPC Section 357
  • C) Civil law only
  • D) Constitution

ANSWER KEY

1-A, 2-A, 3-B, 4-B, 5-B, 6-A, 7-B, 8-B, 9-B, 10-A, 11-B, 12-B, 13-B, 14-C, 15-B, 16-A, 17-B, 18-B, 19-A, 20-B, 21-B, 22-B, 23-B, 24-A, 25-A, 26-A, 27-A, 28-A, 29-B, 30-C, 31-B, 32-A, 33-C, 34-B, 35-A, 36-B, 37-A, 38-B, 39-A, 40-A, 41-B, 42-A, 43-A, 44-B, 45-D, 46-B, 47-B, 48-B, 49-C, 50-B