SBI Apprentice Examination – Practice Test 1

Composite Practice Test — TEST 1

100 Questions | 100 Marks | 60 Minutes

Instructions:

• This composite test contains 100 objective-type (MCQ) questions carrying 1 mark each, across four sections as per the exam pattern above.
• Total duration is 60 minutes (15 minutes recommended per section).
• Attempt the questions first without looking at the answer key placed at the end of the test.
• The complete answer key for all 100 questions is provided at the end, section-wise, after Question 100.

SECTION 1: General / Financial Awareness

Questions 1 – 25 | Marks: 25 | Suggested Time: 15 Minutes

1. What is the full form of RBI?

(A) Reserve Bank of India

(B) Regional Bank of India

(C) Reserve Board of India

(D) Regional Board of India

2. Which institution is regarded as the ‘Banker’s Bank’ in India?

(A) SBI

(B) RBI

(C) NABARD

(D) SEBI

3. In which year was the Reserve Bank of India established?

(A) 1935

(B) 1947

(C) 1950

(D) 1969

4. The repo rate is the rate at which:

(A) RBI lends money to commercial banks

(B) Commercial banks lend to RBI

(C) Banks lend to customers

(D) None of these

5. The reverse repo rate refers to the rate at which:

(A) RBI borrows funds from commercial banks

(B) Banks borrow from RBI

(C) RBI lends to the government

(D) None of these

6. What does CRR stand for?

(A) Cash Reserve Ratio

(B) Credit Reserve Ratio

(C) Capital Reserve Ratio

(D) Currency Reserve Ratio

7. SLR stands for:

(A) Statutory Liquidity Ratio

(B) Standard Liquidity Ratio

(C) Statutory Lending Ratio

(D) Standard Lending Ratio

8. Which institution is the apex body for agricultural and rural development in India?

(A) SIDBI

(B) NABARD

(C) EXIM Bank

(D) IDBI

9. SEBI is the regulatory authority for which sector in India?

(A) Banking

(B) Insurance

(C) Securities Market

(D) Pension

10. IRDAI is the regulatory body for which sector?

(A) Banking

(B) Insurance

(C) Stock Market

(D) Mutual Funds

11. What is the full form of NPA?

(A) Non-Performing Asset

(B) Non-Profit Asset

(C) National Payment Authority

(D) Net Performing Asset

12. Which committee recommended major banking sector reforms in India in 1991?

(A) Narasimham Committee

(B) Rangarajan Committee

(C) Chakravarty Committee

(D) Tarapore Committee

13. Which of the following is India’s largest public sector bank?

(A) Punjab National Bank

(B) State Bank of India

(C) Bank of Baroda

(D) Canara Bank

14. What is the full form of UPI?

(A) Unified Payments Interface

(B) Universal Payment Identity

(C) United Payment Interface

(D) Unified Public Interface

15. UPI (Unified Payments Interface) was launched by:

(A) RBI

(B) NPCI

(C) SEBI

(D) IRDAI

16. What is the full form of NPCI?

(A) National Payments Corporation of India

(B) National Public Corporation of India

(C) National Processing Corporation of India

(D) National Payment Council of India

17. Which of the following is classified as a Direct Tax?

(A) GST

(B) Income Tax

(C) Excise Duty

(D) Customs Duty

18. GST (Goods and Services Tax) was implemented in India in which year?

(A) 2015

(B) 2016

(C) 2017

(D) 2018

19. Which of the following bodies regulates pension funds in India?

(A) PFRDA

(B) IRDAI

(C) SEBI

(D) RBI

20. What is the full form of KYC in banking?

(A) Know Your Customer

(B) Know Your Client

(C) Keep Your Cash

(D) Know Your Currency

21. The headquarters of the Reserve Bank of India is located in:

(A) New Delhi

(B) Kolkata

(C) Mumbai

(D) Chennai

22. Which scheme aims to provide zero-balance bank accounts to promote financial inclusion in India?

(A) Atal Pension Yojana

(B) Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojana

(C) PM Awas Yojana

(D) PM Ujjwala Yojana

23. Which committee recommended the setting up of Payments Banks in India?

(A) Nachiket Mor Committee

(B) Narasimham Committee

(C) Rangarajan Committee

(D) Damodaran Committee

24. The minimum capital requirement for banks under international norms is measured through:

(A) CRR

(B) SLR

(C) Capital Adequacy Ratio

(D) Repo Rate

25. Which of the following is India’s central bank?

(A) SBI

(B) RBI

(C) NABARD

(D) IDBI

SECTION 2: General English

Questions 26 – 50 | Marks: 25 | Suggested Time: 15 Minutes

Spotting Errors

26. Neither of the two girls (A)/ were present (B)/ in the class (C)/ yesterday. (D)

(A) A

(B) B

(C) C

(D) D

27. He along with his friends (A)/ are going (B)/ to the market (C)/ this evening. (D)

(A) A

(B) B

(C) C

(D) D

28. She has (A)/ many furnitures (B)/ in her (C)/ new house. (D)

(A) A

(B) B

(C) C

(D) D

29. He is (A)/ too clever (B)/ to not understand (C)/ this simple problem. (D)

(A) A

(B) B

(C) C

(D) D

30. I have (A)/ visited that place (B)/ since (C)/ two years ago. (D)

(A) A

(B) B

(C) C

(D) D

Sentence Improvement

31. Being a rainy day, we cancelled the trip.

(A) Being a rainy day

(B) As it was a rainy day

(C) Because rainy day

(D) No improvement

32. He is suffering from fever since three days.

(A) since three days

(B) for three days

(C) from three days

(D) No improvement

33. Scarcely had he reached the station when the train left.

(A) No improvement

(B) Scarcely he had reached

(C) Scarcely did he reach

(D) Hardly he reached

34. If I was you, I would accept the offer.

(A) If I was you

(B) If I were you

(C) If I am you

(D) If I will be you

35. Not only he is intelligent but also hardworking.

(A) Not only he is

(B) Not only is he

(C) Not only does he

(D) No improvement

Fill in the Blanks

36. He has been living in Delhi ___ 2015.

(A) since

(B) for

(C) from

(D) at

37. She is good ___ mathematics.

(A) in

(B) at

(C) with

(D) for

38. The train arrived ___ time.

(A) in

(B) on

(C) at

(D) by

39. He was accused ___ theft.

(A) of

(B) for

(C) with

(D) about

40. She apologized ___ her mistake.

(A) of

(B) for

(C) with

(D) about

Synonyms & Antonyms

41. Choose the synonym of ‘Abundant’.

(A) Scarce

(B) Plentiful

(C) Meager

(D) Rare

42. Choose the antonym of ‘Genuine’.

(A) Real

(B) Authentic

(C) Fake

(D) True

43. Choose the synonym of ‘Candid’.

(A) Frank

(B) Secretive

(C) Dishonest

(D) Cunning

44. Choose the antonym of ‘Diligent’.

(A) Hardworking

(B) Lazy

(C) Sincere

(D) Active

45. Choose the synonym of ‘Ephemeral’.

(A) Permanent

(B) Lasting

(C) Transient

(D) Eternal

One Word Substitution / Idioms & Phrases

46. A person who studies birds is called:

(A) Ornithologist

(B) Zoologist

(C) Botanist

(D) Entomologist

47. ‘To beat around the bush’ means:

(A) To be direct

(B) To avoid the main topic

(C) To win easily

(D) To take a walk

48. A place where books are kept for reading is called:

(A) Library

(B) Museum

(C) Gallery

(D) Archive

49. ‘To add fuel to the fire’ means:

(A) To calm a situation

(B) To make a situation worse

(C) To start a fire

(D) To extinguish anger

50. One who cannot read or write is called:

(A) Illiterate

(B) Illegible

(C) Incompetent

(D) Ignorant

SECTION 3: Quantitative Aptitude

Questions 51 – 75 | Marks: 25 | Suggested Time: 15 Minutes

51. Simplify: 15% of 240 + 25% of 160 = ?

(A) 70

(B) 72

(C) 76

(D) 80

52. Find the missing number in the series: 3, 7, 15, 31, 63, ?

(A) 125

(B) 126

(C) 127

(D) 128

53. The price of an item increases by 20%. By what percent should a person reduce his consumption to keep expenditure unchanged?

(A) 16.66%

(B) 20%

(C) 25%

(D) 15%

54. The average of 5 consecutive natural numbers is 20. Find the largest number.

(A) 21

(B) 22

(C) 23

(D) 24

55. If A : B = 3 : 4 and B : C = 5 : 6, find A : B : C.

(A) 15 : 20 : 24

(B) 12 : 16 : 20

(C) 9 : 12 : 16

(D) 15 : 18 : 24

56. The cost price of an article is Rs. 500 and it is sold for Rs. 600. Find the profit percentage.

(A) 15%

(B) 18%

(C) 20%

(D) 25%

57. Find the simple interest on Rs. 8,000 at 5% per annum for 3 years.

(A) Rs. 1,000

(B) Rs. 1,100

(C) Rs. 1,200

(D) Rs. 1,300

58. Find the compound interest on Rs. 10,000 at 10% per annum for 2 years.

(A) Rs. 2,000

(B) Rs. 2,050

(C) Rs. 2,100

(D) Rs. 2,200

59. A can complete a work in 12 days and B can complete it in 18 days. In how many days will they finish it together?

(A) 7 days

(B) 7.2 days

(C) 7.5 days

(D) 8 days

60. A car travels at a speed of 60 km/h for 2.5 hours. Find the distance covered.

(A) 120 km

(B) 140 km

(C) 150 km

(D) 160 km

61. A father’s age is three times his son’s age. The sum of their ages is 48 years. Find the father’s age.

(A) 32 years

(B) 34 years

(C) 36 years

(D) 40 years

62. A mixture of 25 litres contains milk and water in the ratio 3 : 2. Find the quantity of milk.

(A) 10 litres

(B) 12 litres

(C) 15 litres

(D) 18 litres

63. Find the HCF of 24 and 36.

(A) 6

(B) 8

(C) 12

(D) 18

64. Find the LCM of 12 and 18.

(A) 24

(B) 32

(C) 36

(D) 48

65. If 2x + 5 = 17, find the value of x.

(A) 5

(B) 6

(C) 7

(D) 8

66. Find the sum of the roots of the quadratic equation x² − 7x + 12 = 0.

(A) 5

(B) 7

(C) 9

(D) 12

67. A boat’s speed downstream is 15 km/h and upstream is 5 km/h. Find the speed of the boat in still water.

(A) 8 km/h

(B) 9 km/h

(C) 10 km/h

(D) 12 km/h

68. A invests Rs. 5,000 for 12 months and B invests Rs. 6,000 for 8 months. Find the ratio of their profits.

(A) 5 : 4

(B) 4 : 5

(C) 3 : 2

(D) 5 : 6

69. The price of sugar increases by 25%. By what percent should consumption be reduced to keep expenditure unchanged?

(A) 15%

(B) 20%

(C) 25%

(D) 30%

70. A die is thrown once. Find the probability of getting a number greater than 4.

(A) 1/6

(B) 1/3

(C) 1/2

(D) 2/3

71. In how many ways can 3 people be seated in a row out of 5 people?

(A) 60

(B) 50

(C) 120

(D) 20

72. Simplify: (12 + 8) × 2 − 10 ÷ 2 = ?

(A) 30

(B) 32

(C) 35

(D) 40

73. In an exam, 60% of students passed. If 240 students failed, find the total number of students.

(A) 500

(B) 550

(C) 600

(D) 650

74. Find the compound interest on Rs. 4,000 for 1 year at 10% p.a. compounded half-yearly.

(A) Rs. 400

(B) Rs. 405

(C) Rs. 410

(D) Rs. 420

75. Find the missing number in the series: 2, 3, 5, 8, 13, ?

(A) 18

(B) 20

(C) 21

(D) 24

SECTION 4: Reasoning Ability & Computer Aptitude

Questions 76 – 100 | Marks: 25 | Suggested Time: 15 Minutes

Reasoning Ability

76. Find the missing number in the series: 2, 6, 12, 20, 30, 42, ?

(A) 54

(B) 56

(C) 58

(D) 60

77. Find the missing letter in the series: B, D, G, K, P, ?

(A) T

(B) U

(C) V

(D) W

78. If CAT is coded as DBU, how is DOG coded in the same language?

(A) EPH

(B) EQH

(C) DPI

(D) EQI

79. Pointing to a photograph, a man says, ‘She is the daughter of my grandfather’s only son.’ How is the woman related to the man?

(A) Mother

(B) Sister

(C) Wife

(D) Daughter

80. Ravi walks 5 km North, turns right and walks 3 km, turns right again and walks 5 km, then turns left and walks 2 km. How far and in which direction is he from the starting point?

(A) 5 km East

(B) 5 km West

(C) 7 km North

(D) 3 km South

81. In a class of 40 students, Raj ranks 14th from the top. What is his rank from the bottom?

(A) 25th

(B) 26th

(C) 27th

(D) 28th

82. Choose the odd one out:

(A) Apple

(B) Mango

(C) Potato

(D) Banana

83. Doctor is related to Hospital in the same way as Teacher is related to:

(A) Student

(B) School

(C) Book

(D) Classroom

84. Statements: All cats are dogs. All dogs are cows. Conclusion: All cats are cows. Does the conclusion follow?

(A) Conclusion follows

(B) Conclusion does not follow

(C) Cannot be determined

(D) None of these

85. If A > B ≥ C > D, does it follow that A > D?

(A) Follows

(B) Does not follow

(C) Cannot be determined

(D) Only if B = C

86. Find the missing number: 4, 9, 16, 25, 36, ?, 64

(A) 45

(B) 47

(C) 49

(D) 51

87. In a code, SUN is written as TVO (each letter moved one step forward). How is MOON written in the same code?

(A) NPPO

(B) NPQO

(C) MPPO

(D) NPPP

88. A is B’s brother. C is A’s mother. D is C’s father. How is A related to D?

(A) Grandson

(B) Grandfather

(C) Son

(D) Nephew

89. In a row, a person is 7th from the left end and 12th from the right end. How many people are there in the row?

(A) 16

(B) 17

(C) 18

(D) 19

90. How many times do the hands of a clock overlap in a 24-hour period?

(A) 20

(B) 21

(C) 22

(D) 24

Computer Aptitude

91. What is the full form of CPU?

(A) Central Processing Unit

(B) Central Program Unit

(C) Computer Processing Unit

(D) Central Processor Utility

92. What is the full form of RAM?

(A) Random Access Memory

(B) Read Access Memory

(C) Rapid Access Memory

(D) Random Available Memory

93. Which of the following is a volatile memory?

(A) RAM

(B) ROM

(C) Hard Disk

(D) CD

94. What is the basic/smallest unit of computer memory?

(A) Byte

(B) Bit

(C) Nibble

(D) Word

95. 8 bits together are called one:

(A) Nibble

(B) Byte

(C) Word

(D) Kilobyte

96. Which generation of computers used transistors as the main switching device?

(A) First Generation

(B) Second Generation

(C) Third Generation

(D) Fourth Generation

97. Which of the following is an output device?

(A) Keyboard

(B) Monitor

(C) CPU

(D) Mouse

98. What is the full form of URL?

(A) Uniform Resource Locator

(B) Universal Resource Link

(C) Uniform Reference Locator

(D) United Resource Locator

99. Which keyboard shortcut is used to Copy selected text?

(A) Ctrl+V

(B) Ctrl+C

(C) Ctrl+X

(D) Ctrl+Z

100. Microsoft Windows operating system was developed by:

(A) Apple

(B) Microsoft

(C) Google

(D) IBM

ANSWER KEY — TEST 1 (Complete: Q1–Q100)

Section 1: General / Financial Awareness (Q1–Q25)

Section 2: General English (Q26–Q50)

Section 3: Quantitative Aptitude (Q51–Q75)

Section 4: Reasoning Ability & Computer Aptitude (Q76–Q100)